Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Society & CultureReligion & Spirituality · 1 decade ago

CATHOLIC ONLY!! About Mary(pbuh)..?

Please only Catholic answer this because I see many Protestant disrespecting Mary(pbuh) and I dont want any one who is going to be disrespectful.

Do you think she was sinner? Was she not the most pure women?

Update:

So Catholic agree that she is free of sin?

Update 2:

Thank you Joan, yes as Muslim I do agree with this doctrine.

Mary(pbuh) had no sin, she was born without any stain of sin and never sinned in her life. It says this also in Qu'ran.

Behold! The angels said, 'Oh Mary! God has chosen you and purified you, chosen you above the women of all nations. Oh Mary! Worship your Lord devoutly. Prostrate yourself, and bow down (in prayer) with those who bow down'" (3:42-43).

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  • 1 decade ago
    Best Answer

    Yes, the Catechism states that Mary was conceived without sin – this is the doctrine of the Immaculate Conception. Catholics SHOULD believe and uphold this teaching because it is what the Church has defined.

    This doctrine is also in the Bible, the angel Gabriel came to Mary and called her “full of grace.” The word “full” in the original Greek meant entirely filled with, to the point where there was no room for anything else. If Mary was full of grace, she could not have contained sin as well. She was the most pure woman because God created her especially for the purpose of bearing Jesus in her womb. The Bible shows us many of Jesus’ apostles sinning in their weak moments, but never Mary. She was with him until his very death.

    Thank you for supporting this doctrine!!

  • 1 decade ago

    When the angel Gabriel called Mary, "Full of grace," Mary was already full of grace. No one else in the entire Bible is ever call "Full of grace." And this is God's messenger stating the fact and not a human stating an opinion.

    When the angel Gabriel said, "The Lord is with you," the Lord was already with her.

    The Blessed Virgin Mary was in a state of grace before she says "yes" to the angel's question and before the Holy Spirit came upon her for a different purpose.

    When did Mary's state of grace begin?

    Since God chose not to reveal this in the Bible, the Holy Spirit has guided the Catholic Church to the belief this state of grace was with Mary since her Immaculate Conception. This means that Mary was conceived in the normal way (not like Jesus) but that she did not inherit original sin.

    With the grace of God and without the effects of original Sin, we believe that Mary did not commit personal sin at any time during her life.

    God prepared her for her later role as the mother of Jesus.

    Catholics celebrate this miracle on December 8 as the Feast of the Immaculate Conception of the Blessed Virgin Mary.

    For more information, see the Catechism of the Catholic Church, section 490 and following: http://www.nccbuscc.org/catechism/text/pt1sect2chp...

    With love in Christ.

  • Daver
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    Mary's Immaculate Conception - her conception without Original Sin; the Inclination to commit personal sin is Church Dogma.

    All Catholics do agree that Mary is free of sin.

  • 1 decade ago

    No, Mary was Conceived without sin, hence she was not a sinner.

    And the reason why she was Conceived without sin is because she was destined to become the Mother Of God.

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  • 1 decade ago

    The answer to your question is that Mary was in need of a Savior just as any other person would be. The difference is that God chose to save her from original sin from the moment of her conception, unlike the rest of us who are saved from original sin through the waters of Baptism.

    The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception makes perfect sense when you realize that Jesus took His humanity from His mother. If Mary had been conceived in sin, then she would have passed that sin onto her Son. The fact that Jesus was completely without sin indicates that He didn't inherit a sin nature from His mother.

    You don't put a beautiful white lily in a filthy vase, and God didn't place His Son in the womb of a sin-tainted woman, either.

    Source(s): Catholic convert
  • 1 decade ago

    I'm a non denominational Christian and I believe that Mary must've been an exceptionally special woman to find favor in God's eyes. She gave birth to our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ, after all. No other woman in history can boast such an honor.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Why would a Protestant say Mary was a sinner?

  • 1 decade ago

    Other than Jesus, Mary was the only sinless person. This is what every Christian on earth believed until a few hundred years ago when the doctrinal chaos of Protestantism began, and it is what the true Christian Church still believes and teaches, and will teach until the end of time. Truth never changes.

    Source(s): Catholic deacon
  • 1 decade ago

    Mary was a sinner but never sinned. God granted Mary all of His grace before her birth. I honor Mary just as God does.

    a. GOD called Mary Blessed, and He venerated her.

    b. GOD needed her to bear His Divine Son.

    c. GOD chose Blessed Mary above all women.

    d. Blessed Mary gave birth to the divine 'Incarnate Word'.

    e. As a child, Jesus Christ obeyed the commands of His mother.

    f. Jesus Christ honors His very own mother.

    g. Jesus Christ will defend His mother as any good son would. Doesn't that make Blessed Mary special?

    Does not this make her worthy of our honor? Can we do less than what GOD Himself did? Does any man or woman have the right, or the authority, to say we should not honor Blessed Mary? Jesus Christ was the only person in history who was able to choose His own mother. Why did He choose Mary? Because she is special

  • 1 decade ago

    Catholic doctrine states that she was conceived without the innate human tendency to sin. Interpret that as you wish.

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