Employment Law (UK) question?

If my employer asks me to work from home for some of the time and then one day does not provide me with any work then am I entitled to be paid?

I argued that UK Employment Law says it is not whether or not I did any work that matters but whether or not I made myself available for work which does. I think that I am right, i.e. if I make myself available then I am covered. Can anyone confirm this and maybe give me some case studies to explore.

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