Why oh why do fundamentalist Christians use the absence of something in the Bible as grounds to condemn it?

How many times have I seen this on Yahoo Answers now? Some church practice, however inconsequential, even something like wearing robes or lighting candles, is attacked as "unbiblical". Unless the Bible is specifically talking about an issue, you can't logically use the fact that it's NOT... show more How many times have I seen this on Yahoo Answers now? Some church practice, however inconsequential, even something like wearing robes or lighting candles, is attacked as "unbiblical".

Unless the Bible is specifically talking about an issue, you can't logically use the fact that it's NOT MENTIONED to condemn it. It makes no sense.

Another example: some use this to condemn infant baptism on the grounds that it's not mentioned. Guess what? Specific mention of baptising the elderly isn't mentioned either. Baptism is discussed as a general practice; there is no need to break people down by age.
Update: Plato-girl: I wanted to send you a PM inquiring how I'm a "chief offender" in this regard, but you don't accept email. So let me just use this moment to ask you what on earth you're talking about.
Update 2: h'ayim tovim Y'all: Is that how you got to Level 6 - by mindlessly insulting people and not answering their questions?
Update 3: C. Chanteuse: I see what you are saying, but don't think infant baptism works as an example, because Catholics for example believe baptism removes the stain of ORIGINAL sin, which is why they include infants. To them there is nothing contrary to scripture about that.
Update 4: batgirl2good: I am always very careful not to generalize. I don't mean all fundamentalist Christians do this. But the ones who DO do it all tend to be.
Update 5: bible-reviews: I never said fundamentalists condemned the Bible...anywhere.
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