Jesus praying to the Father--?
When Jesus is praying, is it like God the Son is praying to God the Father? In trinitarian terms, Jesus the Son looked like he was a distinct entity from the Father when he was praying. And yet he is co equal and co eternal with the Father and he is God, so isn't that a fancy way of saying a part/all of God prayed to another part/all of God?
Ok, I'm confusing myself. In simpler wording, Jesus is God the Son, right? God the Son and God the Father are persons in the Godhead separate and distinct from each other, yet both wholly God. So when The Son prays to the Father it doesn't mean that 1/3 of God is praying to 1/3 of God but means that 3/3 of God is praying to 3/3 of God because God is indivisible. Therefore... God was praying to God?
I'm pretty sure my understanding of this is pretty skewed, so can someone clarify this for me? Is Jesus at the time of prayer God the Son and therefore fully God?
But God the Son is also 100% God just like God the Father, so it's like 100% God praying to 100% God. They may be distinct, but they are both also fully God, so either they're two Gods or God is praying to Himself...? That's my question.
This is how I understand the Trinity: There are three separate and distinct persons in the Godhead: the Father, Son and Holy Spirit. The Father is not the Son, the Son is not the Father, and the Holy Spirit is neither. The Father is fully God, the Son is fully God, and the Holy Spirit is also fully God, and yet they are only One God. If any of them is taken away from the Godhead, there would be no God.
What I understand your answer as is that Jesus was praying to God the Father as the Son of Man (The son of a human) and not God the Son. I say it's the oneness explanation merely because they also say that during those prayers Jesus (God) prayed to God as a man (son of man) and not as God.
(Btw, before you jump into conclusions, I'm a Trinitarian.)
I was thinking the same thing, until I started thinking more and I ran into this: God the Son was co-equal and co-eternal with the Father, right? They're both fully God, right? So God the Son (fully God) prayed to the Father (fully God)? Unless his prayers were of no more purpose than to set an example for us (I highly doubt so).
But if Jesus was genuinely praying... There's my problem. The only other explanation on here is that Jesus was praying as the son of man instead of as God the Son... which also means that this passage is of no dilemma for oneness people and thus we should stop accusing them for saying that "God prays to Himself".
But if this passage is used to disprove oneness almost all the time, there has to be something more.
I thank you all for taking the time to answer. =)
Can you elaborate on this statement? It's a little confusing...