As others have already said, Isaiah 53 simply must be taken in the context of the whole narrative.
I am copy-pasting from Isaiah here today to reveal to you and others like you who have not actually read Isaiah in context. While I am also PICKING passages, I respectfully suggest that rather than take my word for what the text says, you go back and peruse it at your leisure to confirm the contextual meaning for yourself.
When Isaiah wrote his book, there were no chapter designations. They did not come for more than a thousand years. The narrative Isaiah is in the MIDDLE of telling by Chapter 53 actually begins in Chapter 41 and continues far beyond Chapter 53. I will only start with the beginning of this particular narrative and we shall “play detective” ..Watson and Holmes, and count TOGETHER precisely how many times Isaiah specifically identifies beyond any doubt just WHO that suffering servant really is. By the time he gets to Chapter 53, he has no need to keep identifying who the servant is, because you’ll see for yourself, he had repeated it more than a dozen times. Let’s begin:
41:8 "But you, Israel, My servant," (Okay, that's one Watson. Let's keep
track of how many times Israel is called "servant").
41:9 "…To whom I said: You are My servant; (Two).
42:1 "This is My servant, whom I uphold,
My chosen one, in whom I delight.
I have put My spirit upon him,
He shall teach the true way to the nations.
He shall not cry out or shout aloud," (Three)
42:6 "I the LORD, in My grace have summoned you,
And I have grasped you by the hand.
I created you, and appointed you
A COVENANT PEOPLE, A LIGHT OF NATIONS-
Opening eyes deprived of light,"(It's clear that the servant described
in 42:1 is Israel).
42:19 "Who is so blind as My servant, (Four)
So deaf as the messenger I send?
Who is so blind as the chosen one,
So blind as the servant of the LORD" (Five)
42:21 "The LORD desires His (servant's) vindication,
That he may magnify and glorify (His) Teaching."
(This Isaiah chap seems to be saying Watson that a FORMERLY
sinful Israel will BECOME righteous and serve as a good example
for the nations).
43:10 "…My servant, whom I have chosen." (Six)
44:1 "But hear, now, O Jacob My servant,
Israel whom I have chosen!" (Seven)
44:2 "…Fear not, My servant Jacob,
Jeshurun whom I have chosen," (Eight)
44:21 "Remember these things, O Jacob
For you, O Israel, are My servant:" (Nine)
44:21 "…I fashioned you, you are My servant-
O Israel, never forget Me." (Ten)
44:26 "But confirm the word of My servant
And fulfill the prediction of My messengers." (Eleven)
45:4 "For the sake of My servant Jacob,
Israel My chosen one," (Twelve)
48:16 "…And now the Lord God has sent me, endowed with His spirit"
(It would seem Watson that Isaiah is the messenger or servant to
48:21 "Say: "The LORD has redeemed His servant Jacob!" (Thirteen).
49: …The LORD appointed me before I was born,
… And He said to me, "You are My servant, Israel in whom I glory"
And now the Lord has resolved- He who formed me in the womb to be his servant-to bring back Jacob to Himself, that Israel may be restored to Him. And I have been honored in the sight of the Lord, My God has been my strength. For He has said: “ It is too little that you should be My servant in that I raise up the tribes of Jacob and restore the survivors of Israel; I will also make you a light of nations, that my salvation may reach the ends of the earth.“
(Ahaah. So Isaiah is the servant to Israel and Israel is the servant to
50:4 "The Lord GOD gave me a skilled tongue,
To know how to speak timely words to the weary." (Isaiah)
50:10 "Who among you reveres the LORD
And heeds the voice of His servant?- (Isaiah)
52:13 "Indeed, My servant shall prosper," (Fourteen)
So since Isaiah explicitly identified Israel as the servant no less than fourteen times prior to the portion that was later cordoned off as Chapter 53..was there really any reason that he should have to KEEP repeating it?
If you continue past Chapter 53, you'll see more evidence that the servant being spoken about could not possibly fit Jesus.
The use of Isaiah to fit to Jesus is entirely dependent on taking the passages out of context and imposing meaning into them that contradicts the narrative Isaiah wrote about 800 years earlier.
I'll be back with Micah..whose writings in their context are an indictment against one of the New Testament's doctrines that if one doesn't believe in Jesus that you do not reach God.
Let us begin our discussion of Micah in the chapter JUST preceeding Chapter 5 to get the CONTEXT..my mantra when reading any book or written work is context, context, context..authors string together words for specific meanings..cherry picking usually changes them.
In Chapter 4, Micah is speaking of the "last days" , he begins this chapter with a vision that all the nations of the world will go to the Temple with one resolve, to learn at God's Temple and to live and act in accordance with the laws of God. This prophetic vision has obviously not transpired. Chapter 4 speaks when all the nations of the world will come to Jerusalem for legal decision and arbitration, when no nation shall raise it's sword against another, when there is no need to learn the art of war. Then shall each one sit unafraid under his vine and fig tree, for each nation shall then walk in peace with another. The latter verses are telling that the exiles of Israel will one day be gathered again together to come to Zion..then Chapter 5 tells that the ruler of this peaceful, unified Israel where all live in peace will come from the house of David ( of his family's birthplace) His rule will see peace and the majesty of God's name will reach the ends of the world ( universal knowledge of God, echoed by other prophets as well)
Since the prophetic vision of Israel, under the rule of a descendent of King David, leading the world to peace hasn't happened ...it is a no brainer to show that Micah doesn't refer to something that happened in the past and more obviously, someone who was never any form of ruler in Israel. Since I'm running out of space, please continue reading Micah because Chapter 6 is the portion where he gives the vision of what God requires of man that isn't compatible with the Christian notion of salvation. Read it in context, for yourself. Shalom
EDIT: Perhaps Angie didn't like the Jewish way of asking and exploring and studying to test and challenge to determine congruence..acceptance on blind faith isn't a Jewish way of doing things. It is never a bad thing to ask a question if you want to learn. So, yes, ASK. Even though this question has been asked a hundred or more times here in Y/A and it does NOT require one to be Jewish to read the text in context...there is nothing wrong with asking if you want to learn. It isn't a Jewish interpretation that's necessary to understand the texts, it's a willingness to read the texts in their own context of place, time and the entire narrative written.
Each new bit of knowledge leads to more questions.
My purpose in answering isn't to lead you to become a Jew, we believe that if you're meant to be a Jew that's what you'll seek on your own. The author you first inquired about also echoed the Torah understanding that God has never been exclusive for the Jews, but that the Jews are demanded to be exclusive to God. Isaiah teaches that the righteous of all nations merit a place in the world to come.
So, look to the contextual point of view here..it doesn't require an intellectual or a Jew to tell you what it says, just a bit of effort on your part and I thank you for asking and wanting to learn. Shalom and happy learning and asking