Jesus said “He that has seen me has seen the Father also.” (John 14:9) did Jesus mean God is Human?

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Therefore in What Sense would the scripture above Apply?

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    In Saying this Jesus revealed his Father in yet another profound way. Jesus said: “He that has seen me has seen the Father also.” (John 14:9) and so Jesus perfectly imitated his Father in everything he said and did. So when we read in the Bible about Jesus—the powerful and winsome words that he used in his teaching, the compassion that moved him to heal others, and the empathy that caused him to give way to tears—we might well picture God or Jehovah or Yehwah whichever you prefer saying and doing those very things. (Matthew 7:28, 29; Mark 1:40-42; John 11:32-36) The ways and will of the Father are perfectly revealed in the words and actions of the Son. (John 5:19; 8:28; 12:49, 50) but that is far different from Jesus’ saying, ‘I am the Father.’ Jesus had just told Philip and the other faithful apostles that he was going away to God his Father; and so how could Jesus in the same breath say that Philip, when looking at Jesus, was looking at the Father? Jesus could not have meant that, for he dissociated God his Father from himself, just as when he said: “Ye believe in God, believe also in me.” (John 14:1, AV) Why the expression “also in me,” if Jesus were God himself? Philip asked Jesus: “Lord, shew us the Father,” and Jesus answered that that was what he had been doing all along, namely, showing them the Father. He had been explaining who his heavenly Father was. He had been showing them what his heavenly Father was like. He imitated his Father. He was like him, so much so that when one saw Jesus it was as if seeing his Father.

    Source(s): w62 and the book "come be my followers"
  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    Hi! Good question. I'm a student (not expert) of Koine (pronouced Kee Nee by most, Coin-ay by some) Greek. I have a year of this course from a Missionary Baptist seminary in Oklahoma. Not only is the definite article to be considered, but generally in this language, there is no "God" vs. "god" as in English. The capital letter presumably signifying God Almighty vs the small case g referring to a false god or other. Greek only capitalizes words like God at the beginning of a sentence. God is NOT capitalized at all in John 1:1 though a specific form of the Greek word for god (theon) is used with the definite article "ho" or "the" before it. There is no "indefinite article" in Greek (the English word "a"). So the literal rendering is that the word was with ho theon (the god) and the word was blank god. So what the word was is NEVER capitalized in Greek. It is always "god" with lower case letters in total. Trinitarians and binitarians suppose no "a" should be there though since "ho" or the is in place with the one who the word was with, the lack of such indicates the need for "a" in from of what the word was thus the word was "a god". Trinitarians/biniarians truly make me want to laugh over this and other things. Additionally, the Bible shows in many places that TRUE Christianity is a religion that WILL NOT WAR (Micah 4:1-5, Matthew 5:38-48, Rom. 12:19-21 and much more.) Jesus is God religions are among the most blood thirsty there is. They will kill or enslave literally anyone Caesar tells them to. And more. They do not obey Jesus at all. Debbie Edited to add: Many unitarian religions (Unitarian Universalists) believe Jesus is "divine" but not almighty. They also believe ALL humans are "divine" gods. That is what they think the aim is to be similar to Mormons who believe all who go to the heaven where God/Jesus live are "gods".

  • 1 decade ago

    Jesus, the first born of all creation, the only begotten son lived in heaven for billions of years before coming to earth to fulfill prophecy. He has his Father's qualities and exhibits those qualities. While on earth he was loving, kind, just, merciful and wise. He was a man like no other. No one has seen God and lived. Jehovah is not human, he is a spirit and lives in heaven.

  • No, Jesus did not mean that God is human. He referred to His father in Heaven. The reference is to the holiness.

    Later, He calls out on the cross, "My God, My God, why hast thou forsaken me?" This shows that God and Christ are two separate beings. When the Father left his Son on the Cross, it was for Jesus to make the ultimate sacrifice -- to be without God (which is hell).

    The second incidence also shows that when Christ spoke "He that has seen me has seen the Father also" he was not stating that they were one being.

    T.

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    This is one of the verses that leads us to the existence of the Holy Trinity. There is no difference between Jesus and God, except for the reason that Jesus came directly from God. God generated him, with all his powers. Jesus is the owner of this universe, since God entrusted it in his hands. We see God himself when we see Jesus. God dwells within him. When we pray to Jesus, we are praying to God himself. Jesus' human life was just for 33 years. He was there even before God creating the whole universe.

  • misma
    Lv 4
    1 decade ago

    He meant, "The Father and I Are One". Those who see me see My Father as well. He laid self aside and allowed the Father to use Him As His Chosen Vessel.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    You know my husband and my son are the same too.

    If you took them into different rooms and asked them the same questions the answers would be almost identical. They walk the same, talk the same and think the same.

    When my daughter-in-law first saw my wedding photo's she laughed, just could not believe how much they even look alike.

    Yes, who ever has seen my son, has seen my husband also.

    x x x

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Ever since the incarnation of Jesus Christ ... Yes!

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Don't think so, most probably he means he is god.

  • 1 decade ago

    Don't take it our of context...you will understand if you read the entire chapter. It is showing the Trinity.

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