why did hitler take offence to poland and jews and the french ?

11 Answers

  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    Hitler had issues with the Poles because he saw them as an inferior race, similar to the Russians, and the Treaty of Versailles had resulted in the creation of the "Polish Corridor" which gave Poland access to the Baltic Sea and the German city of Danzig. It also split Germany in half leaving East Prussia seperated from the main German state. This was a contentious point that Hitler would use, among others, for his eventual invasion in 1939.

    The French were the main source of the extreme measures within the Treaty of Versailles at end of WWI. The French leader, Georges Clemenceau, had seen his country invaded twice by Germany (the first time when it was just Prussia) in his lifetime and was determined to make the country suffer and insisted on far harsher penalties (despite Britain's David Lloyd George disagreeing) resulting in severe economic woes for Germany throughout the 1920's. This had angered Hitler and coupled with Germany's defeat at the hands of it's traditional enemy the anger had festered and he wished to take revenge. When Paris fell and France surrendered in 1940 he forced the French to sign their surrender in the same railway carriage in Compiegne Forest that the German armistice had been signed in 1918. Hitler saw using this location as a supreme moment of revenge for Germany over France.

    Hitler saw the Jews as those who were most resposible for Germany's defeat in 1918 as he saw them inexorably linked to Communism. He also knew that the predominantly Jewish-run international banking cartels had financed Britain's war effort when Britain agreed to back Zionism if they were to win the war. The Jews therefore became the main causus belli for Germany's woes. They were a useful scapegoat and he considered them an impure, animalistic race; not German and only helping themselves off of the effort of the Germanic or Aryan peoples - vermin-like and similar to a disease. He felt something needed to be done regarding them...

  • ?
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    Poland- It had been a part of Greater Germany for over a hundred years before the first world war started. Hitler considered it to be a part of Germany and wanted it back (as did many people in germany and poland).

    Jews- Do we not still have scapegoats now? The Jews were the scapegoats of the time and it's always easy to blame someone else when times are bad because people want to believe you.

    France- The French demanded the greatest reparations after world war one which virtually destroyed Germany's economy. Plus both countries have wanted each other's land for centuries.

  • 1 decade ago

    It is worth considering the Germany of the 20s and 30s. Having lost WW1 Germany was having to pay a lot of money to the allied nations in the form of reparations. That is where the original bullion to create the US Federal Researve at Fort Knox came from.

    The Jews of Europe had, for some time, existed within Germany, but retaining separation from Christian Germans in day to day life. Given the poverty of the 20s and early 30s, a people who kept themselves to themselves, dressed differently, etc. created an ideal excape goat for Hitler. The Jews were portrayed as well off, sponging off of the honest hard work of Christians, etc.

    Hitler probably did not have any problems with the Jews. He was socially conected to them in that, much of his artwork was sold via Jewish owned galleries. However, this did not mean that he couldn't recognise the benfit in stiring up the mob.

    Hitler viewed the Polish as Untermensch, however, this was not his reason for attacking Poland. As stated in Mein Kampf, Hitler wanted to have a crack at Russia. In order to do this, he needed to position his armies next to Russia. Poland was in the way. Get rid of Poland and Czec and you are ideally placed to attack Russia. The fact that, apart from a few Germanic enclaves, these people were racially inferior, only helped his cause.

    As for France. Although they were from a different racial origin to the Germans, Hitler did not want a war with the French, since they had defeated Germany in a bloody, long drawn out war already. In fact, Hitler did not believe that Britain and Germany would declare war over Poland. He considered it a bluf.

    However, once in occupation.....


  • Anonymous
    4 years ago

    There's a little story that I've heard, not sure if it's true though. When Hitler was just a child, his mother fell fatally ill. Many doctors tried to cure her, but none could. Not even the last one. His mother died a day after the last doctor came to his house. That doctor was Jewish. There were plenty of Jewish people living in Germany before WWII. They lived there, they spoke the language. It was their home too. They also took up residence in Poland. Jews lived all over eastern and central Europe. Hitler had it in his head somehow that it was the Jews' fault that all of Europe was in the poor economic state that it was in. That they were some bad luck to keep around, and they were messing up his idea of the "perfect German race." So he killed them.

  • How do you think about the answers? You can sign in to vote the answer.
  • 1 decade ago

    Hitler was a megalomaniac. WW22 was inevitable. After WW1, Germany was forced to shoulder the blame for all the damages, yet almost none of the war ever happened on German soil. A lot of people knew that Germany wasn't defeated unless foreign troops march through Berlin. I think we were lucky a moron like Hitler was in charge. If Germany had been led by a German with organized thought patterns, we could all be speaking German today.

  • 1 decade ago

    Anti-semitism was normal during those times in Europe, but he took it to the next level. He hated the Jews and blamed them for all the problems in the world. Many communists were Jewish and he hated communism. He felt the Germans were superior to all races. He felt the Slavic people were inferior. Poland was a Slavic nation.

    As for the French as well as the British, he had no problems with them racially. He actually wanted peace with them, but they did not want anything to do with him. Since they had declared war on Germany, the Germans took over France.

    Source(s): Reading history books
  • 1 decade ago

    Poland because it separated Germany when a corridor was established after WW I.

    France for being such as strong supporter of war reparations following WW I

    And the Jews because the were accused of holding all the wealth of Germany preventing economic growth.

  • 1 decade ago

    I wouldn't call it an offense concerning the Polish & French peoples. He saw them as racially inferior and a labor force. The Jews ... however were an offense a scapegoat for all the problems that Germany had. He blamed them for the treaty of Versailles, lack of food etc. In some ways he truly feared them. A psychological profile is available and would shed a deeper perspective on his views on race.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Poland because it used to be part of Germany before it was split off in post-WW I Europe.

    The Jews were his scapegoat for everything, and the Germans already weren't fond of the Jews anyway.

    The French...well...come on...they're French.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Poland: probably just because he wanted to rule the world and it was a way to keep Russia on their side

    Jews: because he felt that they were taking all the jobs in germany and Europe and must be punished

    French: thats easy. it was the french that demanded the most harsh parts of the treaty of Versailies.

Still have questions? Get your answers by asking now.