John 1:1..Should it really be "a god"?

NIV...1In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2He was with God in the beginning.

NWT..In [the] beginning the Word was, and the Word was with God, and the Word was a god.

Do other all other Bibles regardless of the word "a" being added or not..Capitalize God..or leave the g..small as does the NWT.?

Doesn't leaving the g in God small..make him..just a god such as the bible calls rulers of the world gods..or as satan is the god of this system, since he is the ruler of the world.?

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  • 1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    Yes

    (to the first question in bold).

    Several Bibles translate John 1:1 in a manner compatible with the phrase "the Word was a god". The Bible plainly teaches that Jesus is a god (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18). This biblical concept does not trouble any Christian, whether he be trinitarian or nontrinitarian. Yet, for centuries, trinitarians have tended to reject any alternate translation of John 1:1.

    Trinitarians must recognize that it was three or four hundred years after Christ's impalement that a minority of self-described "Christians" decided that Jesus was the only god, God Almighty (Jehovah). By the time the King James Version translated John 1:1 into English as "the Word was God", the year was 1611. How interesting it would be to see a translation from Greek (which contained no indefinite article "a") into English (with its indefinite articles "a", "an") performed by early Christians, perhaps the children or grandchildren of those who walked with the apostles!

    We do have such a translation, but into the Coptic language, which uses indefinite articles as English does. How do the Coptic manuscripts word John 1:1?

    "...and the Word was a God."

    http://jehovah.to/exe/translation/coptic.pdf

    http://depts.washington.edu/cartah/text_archive/co...

    The Bible makes perfect sense when it is being read honestly. John 1:1 is perfectly harmonious with the rest of the Bible, which teaches plainly that Jesus Christ the Son is a distinct person from Jehovah God the Father. The Scriptures teach that the Almighty created Jesus as His firstborn son.

    .. ..(Colossians 1:15) the firstborn of all creation

    .. ..(Mark 10:18) Jesus said to him: 'Why do you call me good? Nobody is good, except one, God.

    .. ..(Revelation 3:14) the Amen says, the faithful and true witness, the beginning of the creation by God

    .. ..(Philippians 2:5-6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God

    .. ..(John 8:42) Neither have I come of my own initiative at all, but that One sent me forth

    .. ..(John 12:49) I have not spoken out of my own impulse, but the Father himself who sent me has given me a commandment as to what to tell and what to speak

    .. ..(John 14:28) I am going my way to the Father, because the Father is greater than I am

    .. ..(1 Corinthians 15:28) But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him

    .. ..(Matthew 20:23) this sitting down at my right hand and at my left is not mine to give, but it belongs to those for whom it has been prepared by my Father

    .. ..(1 Corinthians 11:3) I want you to know that the head of every man is the Christ; ...in turn the head of the Christ is God

    .. ..(John 20:17) I am ascending to my Father and your Father and to my God and your God.

    .. ..(Deuteronomy 6:4) Jehovah our God is one Jehovah

    .. ..(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

    Thanks again for an opportunity to share what the Bible actually says about the distinct persons of Jesus Christ the Son and Jehovah God the Father!

    Incidentally, the Bible quite explicitly calls Jesus a "god"; human judges, angels, and even Satan are also referred to as "gods" in the Bible (see below). Yet Jehovah is "the one true God" in the sense that He has no rival among any of these. Jesus the Son is clearly no rival to God the Father!

    .. ..(Psalm 86:8,10) There is none like you among the gods, O Jehovah... You are God, you alone.

    .. ..(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

    .. ..(Exodus 22:20) One who sacrifices to any gods but Jehovah alone is to be devoted to destruction.

    The Bible speaks of honoring Christ Jesus and doing obeisance to him, but only Jehovah the Father merits worshipful "exclusive devotion".

    .. ..(Exodus 20:2,5) I am Jehovah your God... I Jehovah your God am a God exacting exclusive devotion

    .. ..(Philippians 2:5,6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God’s form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God

    The Bible does not use the term "god" only in reference to Almighty Jehovah.

    .. ..(1 Corinthians 8:5) there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth

    Jesus as "a god": (John 1:1; Isaiah 9:6; John 1:18)

    Angels as 'gods': (Psalm 82:1)

    Satan as 'a god': (2 Corinthians 4:4)

    Human judges as "gods": (Psalm 82:6-8) “I myself have said, ‘You are gods, And all of you are sons of the Most High. Surely you will die just as men do... Do rise up, O God, do judge the earth

  • girst
    Lv 4
    4 years ago

    In Koine Greek, there is not any indefinite article ("a"); within the absence of a certain article ("the") an indefinite article is ordinarily rightly assumed, however even as there is not any certain article in entrance of "God" in John a million:a million, we cannot expect an indefinite article. The textual content reads actually: "?? ???? ?? ? ?????, ??? ? ????? ?? ???? ??? ????, ??? ???? ?? ? ?????." In starting used to be the phrase and the phrase used to be with the God, and God used to be the phrase. John has performed a well activity of establishing this sentence in order that he each announces Christ to be God even as additionally declaring that Christ and the Father don't seem to be the equal individual. Had he mentioned that the phrase used to be THE God, with a certain article, he could have known as Jesus and the Father entirely the equal, which we all know isn't the case. But if they don't seem to be the equal, why no longer name "the phrase" (Jesus) one other god? Look on the moment clause mainly (??? ???? ?? ? ?????. - and God used to be the phrase.) Note that John has placed God, no longer the phrase, on the starting of the clause. This is how a speaker of Koine further emphasis to a phrase, as though to underline it. So John is emphasizing Jesus' Godhood even as nonetheless isolating his personhood from the daddy, no longer making a polytheistic plurality of Gods. Had he switched the order and placed "a god" on the finish of the clause, then the indefinite article assumption could had been a bit of extra fair. The context of the complete of scripture will have to be an ample advisor to reply the query nevertheless, as there is just one God, and there would be no legit "a god." The NWT additionally makes many seen interpretive mistakes and will have to no longer be depended on most commonly. For illustration, it erroneously inserts Jehovah each time the Greek obviously says "lord." This demonstrates the seen biases of the translators in desire of a exact theological view.

  • 1 decade ago

    To answer that, you have to go to the original greek.

    Consider what Daniel Wallace, probably the leading scholar on Biblical Greek has to say about that passage:

    "John's wording [in John 1] is beautifully compact! It is, in fact, one of the most elegantly terse theological statements one could ever find. As Martin Luther said, the lack of an article (like "a" or "an") is against Sabellianism; the word order is against Arianism."

    kai o logos en o theos ( "and the Word was the God" - That'd mean that Christ was God the father, no a separate person of the Trinity)

    kai o logos en theos ( "and the Word was a god" - That's Arianism)

    kai theos en o logos ( "and the Word was God" - That's what it actually says)

    So the word order and placement of the definite article (there are no indefinite articles in Greek) in front of logos ("Word") clarifies it perfectly.

  • 1 decade ago

    The Greek does not have the word "a". EVERYWHERE you see it in NT, it was added.

    Also, in original languages, the Bible was written in ALL caps in some, all small letters in others.

    It is later languages that make the distinction between lower and upper case and they do it according to later rules.

    Hebrew was written right to left, bottom to top, all caps with no vowels.

    The way it is done in KJV and others is mainly according to English language and tradition and personal opinions of the version preparers.

    So to know how it should be, it would have to be compared with original language rules, plus the content of the entire NT (Like 1 Cor. 15:24-28, Exodus 4:16, 7:1....Moses was also called God though he did not come down from heaven as Jesus did).

    Debbie debbiepittman@yahoo.com

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  • TeeM
    Lv 7
    1 decade ago

    The bible lists 3 types of G(g)ods.

    The only true God (John 17:3)

    False gods/Gods (2 Cor 4:4)

    and those called G(g)ods.

    Moses is called God to Pharaoh (Ex 7:1)

    The angel of Jehovah is called God by Manoah (Judges 13:21,22)

    The judges of Israel are called gods (Ps 82:6)

    Jesus is called a god at John 1:1.

    These only become false G(g)ods if you worship them.

    .(1 Corinthians 8:5-6) 5 For even though there are those who are called “gods,” whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many “gods” and many “lords,” 6 there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him; and there is one Lord, Jesus Christ, through whom all things are, and we through him

    .

  • 1 decade ago

    Comment: when the bible talks about the lowercase god in a religious sense it always talks about false gods (balaam, etc.) so if that version puts God as god they are putting Him on the same level as the false gods.

    Incorrect.

    (Psalm 97:7) . . .Bow down to him, all YOU gods (angels)

    Comment: because they don't believe in the deity of Christ

    Incorrect.

    John 1:1 "and the word was (a) God"

    Comment: by the Jewish leaders as claiming to be THE God

    Correct.

    The Jewish leaders claimed he was God. Jesus on the other hand corrected them, stating he was the Son of God.

    "Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?"

    Scripture: John 1:1

    Unless the questioner wants two trinities or two Jesus then Jesus is the 'other' God.

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    If you skip the rest of the Bible you could come up with that mistaken doctrine.

    But both the NT and the OT speak of the Christ as being God in the creation, as being born of God(and not an earthly father), as having all of the "godhead" fully in Him, as having the glory of God(which God says "I will not share with another"), as being called God by His disciples, as being understood by the Jewish leaders as claiming to be THE God, Jehovah.....and being killed on that basis.

    1 John 5:9-12

    9 We accept man's testimony, but God's testimony is greater because it is the testimony of God, which he has given about his Son. 10 Anyone who believes in the Son of God has this testimony in his heart. Anyone who does not believe God has made him out to be a liar, because he has not believed the testimony God has given about his Son. 11 And this is the testimony: God has given us eternal life, and this life is in his Son. 12 He who has the Son has life; he who does not have the Son of God does not have life.

    NIV

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Throw out the NWT. It is a man-made translation. If you keep reading the Jehovah Witness bible, then you will start thinking like them and start talking like them, you will believe like them and therefore preach a false doctrine to all of those you come in contact with. The reason the N.W.T. has "a" god (with the little g) is because they don't believe in the deity of Christ, and they don't believe that he Almighty like God . To say that Jesus was a god is to say that there is more than one God, thus professing to be polytheistic rather than monotheistic. So please do yourself a favor, and get yourself an NIV, NAS, NKJV, or something that preaches the truth.

  • Jay Z
    Lv 6
    1 decade ago

    I would say the translators had a personal agenda in rendering such an inaccurate translation. It suggests to me the warning in Revelation:

    For I testify to everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: If anyone adds to these things, God will add to him the plagues that are written in this book; and if anyone takes away from the words of the book of this prophecy, God shall take away his part from the Book of Life, from the holy city, and from the things which are written in this book. (22:18,19)

  • 1 decade ago

    when the bible talks about the lowercase god in a religious sense it always talks about false gods (balaam, etc.) so if that version puts God as god they are putting Him on the same level as the false gods.

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