Catholics/Protestants: Danger! Marriage discrimination?

The high court in California recently legalized civil unions. They have redefined marriage for that group of people. My question is, what about other groups? A Mormon/polygamist approaches the courts and demands that they legally recognize his 15 wives. The court refuses. The polygamist in turn sues the... show more The high court in California recently legalized civil unions. They have redefined marriage for that group of people. My question is, what about other groups?

A Mormon/polygamist approaches the courts and demands that they legally recognize his 15 wives. The court refuses. The polygamist in turn sues the court for discrimination. Wouldn't he have a case? The question, as I see it, would be how can the courts redefine marriage for one group but refuse to do the same for another? California's action set a legal precedent that the courts can indeed change the definition of marriage. So, if they redefine it for one group, but not another, wouldn't that be discrimination?

Obviously, this is a Pandora's box because we now have an open door for ANY kind of union. I'll let your imagination take it from there.
Update: For this reason I see it that marriage MUST be LEGALLY defined as a union between a MAN and a WOMAN. It is the only way to protect society, and steer clear of the devilish chaos that would ensue the other way.

Thoughts, comments?
Update 2: Did everyone miss my point? I understand, believe in and fight for marriage between a man and a woman, as God intended. Obviously California ignored this. Since they placed their authority over God's with their decision, then I'm looking strictly at the legal arena. A court of law redefined marriage for... show more Did everyone miss my point? I understand, believe in and fight for marriage between a man and a woman, as God intended. Obviously California ignored this. Since they placed their authority over God's with their decision, then I'm looking strictly at the legal arena. A court of law redefined marriage for a particular group of people. If they can do it for one, they would have to do it for another, otherwise, it would be discrimination. A polygamist can make the same claims of love and commitment among his multiple wives that two homosexuals can. Am I clearer now?
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