Christians...according to the Bible married rape victims should be killed, along with their attacker...?
If within the city a man comes upon a maiden who is betrothed, and has relations with her, you shall bring them both out of the gate of the city and there stone them to death: the girl because she did not cry out for help though she was in the city, and the man because he violated his neighbors wife. Deuteronomy 22:23-24
Deuteronomy 22:28-29 says that single rape victims are to marry thier attacker, who has to pay her father 50 pieces of silver.
How can anyone get thier moral guidance from a book that allows one of the most heinous crimes imaginable?
Actually the exact verse is...
If a man is caught in the act of raping a young woman who is not engaged, he must pay fifty pieces of silver to her father. Then he must marry the young woman because he violated her, and he will never be allowed to divorce her. 22:28-29
As a rape victim, I can say being forced to marry my attacker would be a punishment to me. All this verse is saying is that women are property and the man has to pay her father because now she is "damaged goods" and he can't sell her to who he wants. How is that distorted thinking?
And yes it is OT, but the OT is still part of the Bible. If it is irrelevant now, why include it? Why do Christian churches still use it's scriptures in service?
Exodus 22:18 is also OT but that doesn't stop Christians from using it against Pagans.
- 1 decade agoFavorite Answer
There's also a verse that says women on their period need to be "cast out" for a certain amount of time because they are "unclean" As a feminist, this appalls me.
Btw, I do call myself a Christian, but I don't believe that the Bible should be followed to the letter for just such reasons as you mentioned above. I prefer to follow Jesus's message of loving your neighbor and such without all the other junk.
- SarahLv 44 years ago
Your translation does not agree with the Bible. The original Hebrew text does not say "raping" or "rape." Rape is a capital crime in the Bible. The Hebrew word means "to manipulate." So the woman here could not have been raped because her attacker would be dead if that were the correct interpretation. She was seduced, probably by a more experienced man. So the two share guilt, though his guilt is greater. You might think that the three cases in Deuteronomy 22 follow each other exactly with slight difference, but the change of terminology on verse 28 makes that a much different circumstance. Also bear in mind that the marriage might not be allowed by the girl's father if he thinks that such a marriage is not in the girl's best interest. The man who seduced her would have no say in the matter though. The Old Testament is still in the Bible because Jesus commanded his followers to obey all 613 Commandments found therein (Matthew 5:17-19)
- 1 decade ago
The scriptures you cited talk of men and women who commit fornication together - and imply a willingness to sin. I noticed you didn't mention the scriptured in-between the two scenarios, but that really is where you will find the answer to your question.
In Deuteronomy 22:24-27 it speaks of rapists and rape victims - in contrast to willing fornicators. The verses begin: "You must clear away what is evil from your midst." (22:24) and the following paragraph describe a rape victim who screamed for help, but was not heard and was fully assaulted. The Law commanded "The man who lay down with her must also die by himself, and to the girl you must do nothing. The girl has no sin deserving of death." (22:25,26)
The Law states here that because the girl screamed (unlike the girls in the two scriptures you had cited) it was evidence of an account of rape, and not one of willing fornication or adultery.
For rapists, the sentence in the Law was death.
For adulterers, the sentence was that both were put to death.
For single fornicators, they were to be married.
- debbiepittmanLv 71 decade ago
It is part of the OT....also back then...basically only Israelite converts or sympathizers were allowed to stay there.
Such men generally did not have the violent mentality in other places.....serial rapists and such who would be killed....
Marriages were arranged then with little input from the woman being married (the couple's 4 parents did it).
Married women it was the same, if she was guilty of adultery or going along, she was killed with the rapist....if she was not giving permission, the husband instead of the father was paid.
Many many things in Mosaic law were done, not because Jehovah God approved of them, but because rebellious humans (mostly men) would not at the time do any better.
With Jesus, they had a perfect example...and marriage was reverted to one husband one wife law of Eden. And much else was made even stricter and because of Jesus, the penalty of immediate death was done away with.
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- PowertoolLv 51 decade ago
These are taken out of context.
The first one refers to women who would entice men to have sex with them and later claim they were raped. The man would typically be killed by the womans husband or family and the women was not punished. This was a way of saying punishment should be equal for both man and women because they both are equally guilty for participating regardless of gender. This should not be taken literally.
The second one DOES NOT refer to rape. It refers to a virgin. That she should marry a man she sleeps with and do it in a noble fashion. It was supposed to keep men from sleeping around with virgins because he had to pay each time he did it.
Can you cite which translation you are quoting because the bible does not mention the word rape. There is no equivilent to the engligh word "rape" in many biblical languages. Even the KJV says virgin. I search the internet and cannot find any version that says the words that you are quoting.
- HLv 71 decade ago
Kris, Deuteronomy is Old Testament, in other words, Mosaic or Jewish Law. Not Christian teaching. Jesus said He had come to destroy the Law and give us one more Commandment: To Love One Another...
This is the problem with self-interpretation of the Bible. This is how the crazies & unholy people abuse Holy Scripture to accomplish their own evil ends.
- jewels15Lv 51 decade ago
LOL!! What it says is if a man meets a virgin and he rapes her He has to PAY!! The Father money and he must marry her and he can never divorce her because he has violated her. What he is saying to the men is don't rape women it violates her. ITS WRONG!!. Its not punishment for the women but to the man. How did you miss that? How did you get that distorted. You have a wrong mind set. Google that.
- 1 decade ago
Hey Kris, You are still reading in the Old Testament, which is now "History" as other answerers said. It Important to note the Christians are followers of the Christ whose teaching can be found in the "New Testament". I'm sure you will find all the answers you need after Reading the "New Testament".
- Dancer92Lv 51 decade ago
Its speaking of a virgin... NOT married but engaged is to lie with a man. ...
“In case there happened to be a virgin girl engaged to a man, and a man actually found her in the city and lay down with her, 24 YOU must also bring them both out to the gate of that city and pelt them with stones, and they must die,
( it countinues to say this for the reasoning of both of them)
the girl for the reason that she did not scream in the city, and the man for the reason that he humiliated the wife of his fellowman. So you must clear away what is evil from your midst.
Read it all and correctly before you bash!Source(s): http://www.watchtower.org/e/bible/index.htm
- Andy RobertsLv 51 decade ago
That is a practice adopted by Islam now. I don't know about the Jews but the Christians have moved on.
The instruction to us cannot be bettered by any other religion - "But I say to you, love your enemies, bless those who curse you, do good to those who hate you, and pray for those who spitefully use you and persecute you." (Matt. 5:44)