When talking about women inequality do you take into consideration the economic class of the individual?

For example, it has been stated by some many times in this category that women through history and even modern times have never been oppressed or that feminism is exaggerating this oppression. But are you taking into consideration the economic status of the individual? It is very different the social position of... show more For example, it has been stated by some many times in this category that women through history and even modern times have never been oppressed or that feminism is exaggerating this oppression. But are you taking into consideration the economic status of the individual? It is very different the social position of an ancient queen or a modern rich white woman, than the majority who lived and still live in poverty.

Can you see how different it could be?

Other example: for centuries women could not own property, have their own business and less study. If the woman was rich, her family or husband could take care of her. On the other hand if she was poor and was not married there were very few options: going to a convent or prostitution. Unfortunately in many countries women are still not better than in the past.

What thoughts do you have on this?

p.s. Please no answers like: but men have also been oppressed and are also poor. This question is directed to the women's social condition
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