Thank you very much for correcting that.
John 1:1 certainly looks like it is saying that Jesus is God himself. But notice verse 18, where it says that "No man has seen God at any time." But people have seen Jesus, haven't they? And in the garden of Gethsemane, remember what Jesus prayed to God? "Not my will, but Thine be done." How could he have prayed that if he and God were the same person, obviously with the same will? And does God have a God? No. But Jesus does, as he told Mary in the garden after his resurrection, "I am ascending to my Father and your Father, to my God and your God." Does God have a God? But Jesus said he did. And in John 17:3, Jesus plainly said that the Father was "the only true God." So we have to believe Jesus, don't we?
You can see what the problem is in John 1:1 by going to the Library and borrowing a Greek interlinear Bible (a Greek Bible for people who don't speak Greek, which is just about all of us!) like Benjamin Wilson's Emphatic Diaglott. It's got the English underneath the Greek so you can read it and check the words. The Watchtower Society printed it cheaply, just so everybody can see for themselves. Someone said that such Bibles are real expensive, but any Witness can get you one printed by volunteers if you want to check. John 1:1 says that "the Word was with THE God," but it doesn't say that the Word was "THE god", just that "the Word was god," not even capitalized. And Greek is a lot like Spanish. They leave out a lot of "a" this, and "a" that, and you have to put in the "a" yourself. The old Bible Greek is the same way, and both Protestant and Catholic Bibles put in "a's" all the time, as in John 1:6, where it says "there was A man...(John the Baptist)" but in the Greek it just says "There was man". Same thing in John 4:11, when the Samaritan woman said, "You have not bucket" in Greek, but everybody's Bible puts it, in English, "You have not A bucket." You have to put in the "a". Same thing in Spanish. Somebody says, "He was lawyer" in Spanish, you say, "He was A lawyer" in English. Same thing in John 1:1. The Word was with "THE god", but the Word was not "THE god," the Word was only "god." As in man, as in bucket. You have to add the "a". So several Bibles say, "The Word was with God, and the Word was a god." Like Father, like son. And Acts 28:6 clinches it, because you don't have to read Greek to see that the words are put together the same, even the same tense, yet all Bibles translate it "...he was A god," not, "...he was God." Shows that John 1:1 should have been translated the same way.
But that still leaves the fact the Jesus is our Lord and Savior, the only-begotten Son of God! Otherwise, if He is God, then He is his own son, which doesn't make much sense. They did make a song once, "I'm My Own Grandpa," but everyone knew it was a joke!
Thanks for courageously getting that accusation out in the open instead of letting it smolder! Hope this explains clearly where we stand.
The Bible clearly says that Jesus is the son of God. We believe that.
The Bible NEVER says that Jesus is God the son. So we don't believe that.
Where in the world did you get your "information?"
In Matthew 25:36, Jesus said that he did not know when the Great Tribulation was coming, but only the Father, showing that he did not claim to be equal with God. But in John 10:31-36, Jesus plainly said that being God's son did make him like God in the way that God himself called human judges "gods" in the Psalms, a powerful, godlike one with power of life and death. "Like Father, like son."
In John 17:1-3, Jesus plainly called his Father, and his Father alone, "the ONLY true God", not the son and not the holy spirit.
And, of course, nowhere in the Bible does the Bible say that the holy spirit is God.