1. Private citizens are required to conduct themselves without discriminating. true or false and why?

3 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    No, there are many instances when a private citizen is perfectly free to discriminate.

    Suppose that you are a female and you're looking for a doctor. You decide you'd feel more comfortable with a female doctor, so you rule out all males when choosing.

    Guess what? You just discriminated.

    Guess what? All the male doctors in town can't sue you for it. You're within your rights.

    Suppose you're of a particular race, and there's two restaurants on your block which cook your ethnic food. One is owned and operated by a member/family of your race, the other is owned and operated by nonmembers of your race. You choose to only eat at the one run by members of your race.

    Guess what? You just discriminated.

    Guess what? It's legal.

    Now let's get uglier. You're a member of one race, and you go to buy a car. The first salesperson is a member of a different race that you're not fond of. You turn him away and find one who's a member of your race.

    Yup, you discriminated, and yes, it's legal.

    Private citizens are free to associate with whomever they wish. Their freedoms are only limited when it comes to certain decisions: they can't discriminate in hiring, in choice of tenants (when the federal fair housing act applies), and other situations.

  • Jamir
    Lv 4
    1 decade ago

    It would help if I knew exactly what you are asking...discriminating how?

  • 1 decade ago

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