Was the bible mistranslated? Did it say in the original Hebrew bible that Mary was not a virgin?

Answer 1

To say it is a "mistranslation" implies that it misunderstands or misuses Isaiah 7. That is an overstatement. From a reasonable Christian reading of the passages involved the word is appropriate, though it IS a bit more than Isaiah 7 itself specifically tells us.

First, as some have pointed out, the specific story of MARY and the birth of Jesus is not found in the Hebrew Bible ("Old Testament") but in the New Testament, written in Greek. (Some have theories about Aramaic originals, but we lack those, and the Greek has always been the official version.)

But in the New Testament accounts of Jesus' birth (in Matthew 1 and Luke 1) Mary IS clearly said to be a "virgin" (Greek "parthenos"), who conceived Jesus "by the Holy Spirit".

The issue is MATTHEW'S quotation, in his account, of Isaiah 7:14. Following the Greek translation of the Old Testament in use at that time (commonly referred to as the "Septuagint"), Matthew quotes Isaiah as writing "A VIRGIN (parthenos) will conceive and give birth to a son and nme him 'Immanuel' " ["Immanuel" is Hebrew for "God-with-us"]

The debate is whether this accurately represents the original Hebrew of Isaiah 7, where the Hebrew word, `almah is used.

Unfortunately, this debate sometimes get nasty, each side insisting that it is a cut-and-dried matter -- "it means 'virgin'" vs. "It does NOT mean 'virgin'". Neither is quite fair to the facts. The problem is that no one word in Hebrew is the simple equivalent of English "virgin".

That is, no one Hebrew word COULD, by itself, convey the notion "woman who has not had sexual relations". So you have to look at OTHER information (or clues) in the context to know whether "virginity" is being affirmed. And since prophecy can be difficult, even deliberately a little bit unclear, AND people have different views of the LARGER setting in which this specific prophecy is given, it is possible to argue one way or the other.

For MY part, I believe the most helpful translation of Isaiah 7 into English would use the word "MAIDEN" -- This English word has almost exactly the same range as Hebrew `almah -- it refers to "a young woman, typically of marriageable age" and often IMPLIES that she is a virgin. But this last point is not always a part of the meaning.

So, what happens in Isaiah 7 is that the matter is left slightly open, obscure. If you stop immediately you probably assume that this woman must not be a virgin. BUT note that this episode is at the beginning of a distinct SECTION of Isaiah -- chapters 7-11-- often called the "Book of Immanuel". This whole section hangs together, and should be read as a unit. This means that the LATER parts can shed light on what the first episode is talking about.

Now note that there are THREE great prophecies in this "Book" about a "child" to be born. Isaiah 7:14, then the beginning of chapter 9 ("for to us a child is born...."), then chapter 11. If you read these passages (in context) as interpreting each other, it is clear that the hope of these chapters is of the birth of a child who will be of the line of David and who will rule over Israel.. and the nations. If you look at the specific description of this son --his actions and his names (such as "Mighty God, Everlasting Father")-- you can see that something great and unusual is in view.

That's as far as I will take it for now (getting long here!) But I hope you can see that this "proof text" for Jesus' miraculous "virgin birth" is NOT all about one isolated verse. In fact, the prophet is not altogether clear. The idea is that, when you take it all together, and look at in the light of what Christians believe is the FULFILLMENT of all the prophetic hopes, you see it makes sense, and also that it is "even more" than anyone expected. That is, I believe, how the New Testament as a whole invites us to read the Old Testament and gospel together (NOT just as a bunch of isolated proof-texts).

Actually, there are OTHER passages and themes Scripture uses that fit in with the "virgin birth".

One of these is the theme of someone who will make right what the first man (Adam) messed up, a "son of man" (a title used for David and for an unusual man sent from heaven to restore the rule God intended humanity to exercise over creation [Daniel 7]), a "second Adam" .

Then there is the theme of a seed/son/offspring who will carry on God's promises, conceived by a gracious, miraculous act of God. Start with ISAAC, the promised seed/son born to Sarah, though we are told she is TOO OLD to conceive a child -- so God must work a miracle. Several other barren women are likewise enable to conceive by God's work -- and give birth to a special one, chosen by God to fulfill his promises. (You could also compare the birth of Moses, another deliverer sent by God -- who should by rights have been killed, but is rescued.)

The "virgin birth" does this all one better (as is fitting for the One who fulfills greater promises than those who came before). And note that this major Old Testament theme ALSO sits behind the words of Isaiah 7 -- that is, the reader SHOULD understand a birth in some way parallel to these other births of a child of promise.

Answer 2

Well Honey, the "original Bible" is not in existence....nobody can produce the actual original manuscripts. God has PROMISED to PRESERVE His Word, and He's done that in the English language through the KJV, the most obviously blessed and trusted. Do a study on the various Bible versions; and you'll see only the KJV was translated from the "received text"; the others came from the catholic perversions originating from wescott and hortt.....

And YES, Mary was a Virgin until AFTER the birth of Jesus; then she had other children with Joseph....

Answer 3

Yes the bible was mistranslated. I take it that you mean the prophecy mentioned in Isaiah 7:14, Christians say that this refers to Mary, but if you read the whole chapter and the subsequent ones it becomes clearer that it cannot be refering to Mary, but that is another story.

In the Scriptures the hebrew word used is almah meaning a young woman, old enough to be married. In those days a young woman was expected to be a virgin, however it does not categorically mean that she was a virgin.

The hebrew word for virgin is betulah and this word was not used in this particular verse.

The Hebrew bible does not mention Mary.

I hope this answers your question.

Answer 4

First of all, the original text of the New Testament is is Aramaic, not Hebrew. Second, it didn't say whether Mary was a virgin or not - the word used translates as 'maiden' - meaning an unmarried young woman. At that time it would be expected that an unmarried woman would be a virgin, but it is not explicitly stated. The attribution (or at least assumption) of Mary's virginity became standard shortly after the Gospels appeared.

Answer 5

Mary isn't mentioned in the original Hebrew Bible, unless you mean a particular prophecy in Isaiah, in which case the Hebrew was a "young woman" giving birth, not a "virgin". In fact this "prophesy" was about something else, and turned out to be wrong.

In the Septuagint (Greek translation of the Hebrew Bible "young woman" is mistranslated as "virgin". The author of Matthew took this mistranslation and used it in his biography of Jesus - the intention of which was to demonstrate that Jesus was in fact the Messiah prophesied in the older texts.

בתולה (bethulah) means virgin and עלמה (`almah) means young woman in the Hebrew. The Hebrew texts use עלמה. The Septuagint uses παρθένος (parthenos) a virgin. It is a mistranslation.

Answer 6

According to the Law, a man who seduced an unengaged virgin had to give her father 50 silver shekels ($110), was to marry her (if her father permitted), and was not allowed to divorce her “all his days.” (Ex 22:16, 17; De 22:28, 29) But an engaged virgin, being viewed as already belonging to a husband, was to be stoned to death if she did not scream when sexually attacked. Her failure to scream would have denoted consent and thus would have constituted her an adulteress. The fact that an engaged virgin was regarded as being ‘owned’ by a husband also explains why Joel 1:8 could refer to “a virgin” as wailing over “the owner of her youth.”

Answer 7

Yes Virgin is the mistranslation. It actually just said young woman. The prophesy in Isaiah said it would be Almah which in Hebrew means Young woman....Matthew tries to correlate this story. The Hebrew word for Virgin is Betulah. Matthew had to write it this way to give divinity to Jesus because Jews did not believe he was the messiah. So being of a virgin gave his birth more credibility...or at least attempted to.

Answer 8

Mary is not in the "Hebrew Bible."

Mary, Joseph and Jesus are the invention of the Christians.

Next!

Answer 9

As far as I can remember, one of the gospels mentions that when Joseph learned that Mary was pregnant he considered splitting up, but an angel came to him to let him know the deal.

I don't know if that indicates if she was a virgin, but it lends weight to the notion.

Answer 10

this is not the place to find that answer. Christians are gonna jump all over this one, and before you can reach a logical or objective view your eyes will dry up and bleed from reading 4+ pages of "the word is perfect, the word is inspired" cultic chanting. So I'd leave this one now and head to a web search on Yahoo.