You very obviously have NEVER read the 16th Amendment and probably The Constitution!
The 16th Amendment states: "The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration." As you can see, you have it quite totally wrong. PERIOD!
The reason for the 16th Amendment was due to a couple of court rulings in the late 1800s that declared that income taxes were "direct levies" and therefore were subject to apportionment among the states. As a practical matter that was impossible in the 1800s but would be child's play in the modern computer age. This left income taxes functionally dead until ratification of the 16th Amendment which changed the treatment of income taxes to that of "indirect levies" and dealt the final blow to the apportionment requirement.
Now, let's look at The Constitution itself, in particular Article 1, Section 8. Here's what it says about Congress' power to levy taxes: "The Congress shall have Power To lay and collect Taxes, Duties, Imposts and Excises, to pay the Debts and provide for the common Defence and general Welfare of the United States; but all Duties, Imposts and Excises shall be uniform throughout the United States," Note CAREFULLY that it says nothing about any specific kind of tax; that is left ENTIRELY up to Congress to decide! And that INCLUDES income taxes. Just for clarification, income taxes have ALWAYS been legal!
The uniformity rule only means that any tax must apply to the citizens of all states and US possessions, NOT that the rates cannot be different for different incomes or different types of imports (for duties, for example).
I don't know where you get the idea that the courts have ever thrown out an income tax case due to "lack of law" as you claim. Please post a case citation so that I can tear that apart; it's a common tax protester claim. The ONLY case that I've found was a STATE case in IL (the Whitey Harrell case you cite, although it was NOT IRS v Harrell!) a few years back where the defendant sufficiently confused the jury that he wrangled a Not Guilty verdict. (He still paid the tax in the end, however!) Several tax protesters have been found Not Guilty in the Federal courts on tax evasion charges but again still paid the taxes in the end. The ONLY bullet they ever dodged was the criminal charge; the civil cases stood in EVERY case.
The claims that the wages we receive from the fruit of our labor are not income are simply absurd. The courts HAVE ruled on that issue and the definition of income in Title 26 is sufficiently broad that any argument that it is not income is doomed to failure and that's exactly what has happened when it was raised as a defense. Here's the first line from TITLE 26, Subtitle A, CHAPTER 1, Subchapter B, PART I, § 61 defining Gross Income: "(a) (1) Compensation for services, including fees, commissions, fringe benefits, and similar items" The compensation you receive from your employer for the services you provide to him or her are quite clearly income as defined in the law. PERIOD!
That brings us to Title 26 of the US Code. That is the law that governs the Federal Income Tax and a number of other taxes such as Gift Taxes, Estate Taxes, etc. Any claim that this isn't "law" are again, patently absurd. Anyone who thinks this isn't law needs to take a basic Law 101 course.
Lastly, anyone who thinks that the govenment could levy and collect a tax for nearly 100 years without any underlying law is living in Never Never Land. That is such a flight of fancy and disconnect from reality that I'd question the state of mental health of anyone who actually believed that such a fallacy was true.