If someone puts a judgement against a married man, does the judgement apply to his wife as well?

If someone puts a judgement against a married man, does the judgement apply to his wife as well?

For example, if the title of a house is under the wife's name and the husband has a judgement against him and the house is sold, can the person who holds the judgement against the husband get any money from the wife?

Thank you

Update:

THIS IS IN CALIFORNIA, THANKS

4 Answers

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  • 1 decade ago
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    I would say it may depend on the state you live in most states have some type of "marital property" statue that spells out in a marriage what is hers is his and vies-versa, so then yes the judgment can be payed out from the sale of a house. Now it gets complicated if there is a legal prenup, in this case the judgment may not be taken from the sale of the House. I suggest you take a free consultation with a family law lawyer and talk to them about the laws in your state.

    Source(s): working with a simular situation.
  • 1 decade ago

    Not sure about the law but the man shall, in all probability, not get anything from the wife. And should not get unless there is a judgement against the wife as well.

  • 1 decade ago

    It would depend on the status of the home. Just because it's in the wife's name doesn't mean it's hers exclusively. If it is deemed marital property upon the sale, then the judgement holder can have a lien against it.

    You would need much more information before anyone can give you a valid answer.

  • 1 decade ago

    I don't know, but if you're from the USA it's spelled "judgment." If not, then it could be right.

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