A question for a priest, minister or rabbi?

A question about leviticus chapter 18.Many people point to leviticus as their inspiration for disaproving of homosexuality.Do you think its right that leviticus calls sex between to consenting adults a sin but just about endorses pedophilia?leviticus chapter 18 verse10 do not have sex with your grandaughter wether your sons daughter or your daughters daughter.verse17 do not have sexual intercourse with both a woman and her daughter or marry both a woman and her grandaughter wether her son's daughter or her daughter's daughter.These verses indicate that it is okay to have plural marriage and that sex with a child is okay for somebody old enough to be a granparent as long as their not related to the child or their wife isn't.Life expectancy wasn't what it is today back then.With knowing what I showed you how can you continue to use this as a tool to tell homosexuals that god has no place for them and their sin is an abomination but somebody who takes a child isn't as abominable?

Update:

I was looking in leviticus trying to figure out how a man of god could molest a child.I do not believe any of you have the ability to point to verses that specifically condemns the act of violating a child in a sexual manner.That is what I am looking for.

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  • 1 decade ago
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    What you've "shown" us is your rebellious attitude, your arrogance and your ignorance.

    The life span of a man in Moses' time was said to be 120 years. In "Patriarchal" times a person living 100 years was not notable. Then, as now, a few people lived very long lives while others did not.

    Prohibitions against sex with children are mostly 20th century American in origin. (Just so you'll know: I, personally, find the practice of pedophilia repugnant.) It's still legal in most countries.

    Before Moses, there was no scriptural prohibition to inter-family marriage; probably due to the genetic qualities of a very deep DNA pool. Cain and Abel may have mated with their mother or sisters. So what?

    God doesn't have to explain the minutia of every decision He makes. He is GOD, we are not.

    Lesbianism and homosexuality have been abominable since the beginning. Read Genesis 4:7.

  • 1 decade ago

    Sin is “any want of conformity unto or transgression of the law of God” (1Jo_3:4; Rom_4:15), in the inward state and habit of the soul, as well as in the outward conduct of the life, whether by omission or commission (Rom_6:12-17; Rom_7:5-24). Sin is not a mere violation of the law of our constitution, nor of the system of things, but an offense against a personal lawgiver and moral governor who vindicates his law with penalties.

    Since God, speaking through the inspired prophets authoring the books of the bible, declared homosexuality a sin, then it is a sin.

    See: Leviticus 18:22; Leviticus 20:13; Romans 1:26-27; 1 Corinthians 6:9,10; 1 Timothy 1:10.

    Thus, homosexuality is just one of a litany of the decay of the perfect moral state found in original creation.

    As all sinners, homosexuals can be true Christians. As far as God views sin, homosexuality is no greater or lesser than other sins. All sin is objectionable to God. Since homosexuality is often practiced openly ("in your face"), the reaction by some who have wandered off the “love thy neighbor” reservation is over the top. It may also be the case that anyone that seems to revel in their sin seems defiant or disingenuous, if they are a self-professed Christian. I believe that the true Christian homosexual struggles daily with their sinful nature.

    Some resources regarding homosexuality and the bible to help you understand the issue or the reaction of others:

    Myths About Homosexuality:

    http://www.leaderu.com/orgs/probe/docs/homomyth.ht...

    Theology and Homosexuality:

    http://www.leaderu.com/orgs/probe/docs/homotheo.ht...

    Happiness to Christians is more than the needs of the flesh. Homosexuals must continue to pray for strength to resist their urges and strive to be obedient to the scriptures.

  • 1 decade ago

    "These verses indicate that it is okay to have plural marriage and that sex with a child is okay for somebody old enough to be a granparent as long as their not related to the child or their wife isn't."

    That just isn't true. The verses state a few a the things that one ought not do. It doesn't indicate, at all, what one 'should' do. That's reading too much into it.

    In Love

  • 1 decade ago

    Part of the answer to this lies in the fact that our ages of consent today are far older than back in Biblical times, back them most people were married by the age of 12 or 13, and that is about when most women reach sexual maturity. It is only our modern cultural restrictions that place people of this age into the "peadophile" category. Remember, Tutankahmun was married at 7 years old, to a younger bride, it was not an uncommon thing back in BC times, and we can not judge them through our eyes that are tainted by our modern cultural taboos.

    Source(s): Historical fact.
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  • 1 decade ago

    Hi! You allege Leviticus 18:10,17 countenances polygamy and pedophilia. You then use that as the backdrop for arguing that ministers who preach against homosexuality from Leviticus 18 are inconsistent and, hence, wrong about homosexuality.

    Your argument is flawed because you're attempting to refute a claim by attacking the consistency of some ministers. A claim or argument is independent of its proponents' consistency or lack thereof. When you attack the person, his/her argument is left alone and, consequently, unaddressed. This is known as the ad-hominem fallacy. In short, your argument is completely irrelevant to whether the Bible teaches against homosexuality.

    Leviticus 18:22 clearly teaches against homosexual acts and that message is plain REGARDLESS what the other verses teach.

    That being said, the verses you cite DO NOT teach what you allege:

    Lev. 18:10: The nakedness of thy son's daughter, or of thy daughter's daughter, even their nakedness thou shalt not uncover: for theirs is thine own nakedness.

    This is a proscription of intrafamilial intercourse. As such, there is NO implication or explication for pedophilia. You assert an implication unwarranted by the text. It is unwarranted because we are not told how old these "grandchildren" are. One cannot legitimately read into the text what it does not say. Let's say you're a single grandparent. The BIble prohibits you from marrying your grandchild, but it doesn't prohibit you from marrying in general; and, mind you, anybody else you DO marry will be somebody's grandchild, regardless his age.

    Lev. 18:17: Thou shalt not uncover the nakedness of a woman and her daughter, neither shalt thou take her son's daughter, or her daughter's daughter, to uncover her nakedness; for they are her near kinswomen: it is wickedness.

    Again, we're not told the age of these sons and daughters, so it is incorrect to assume they are seven or eight years old. The Hebrew words used here are used elsewhere in the Bible to include *adult* children as well as prepubescent ones. This DOES NOT say God likes polygamy nor does it say He countenances it. You're again turning a proscription into an endorsement which is to read into the text what it does not say.

    The "fundamentalist" teaching on homosexuality is far more comprehensive than you indicate in your question. They use many verses from the Old & New Testaments and the laws of nature when teaching on that subject.

    Feel free to email me if you'd like to discuss this further.

    Best wishes,

    Scalia

    **Edit**

    Since you clarified what answer you're looking for, I shall add to this post what I've sent you via email...

    As I stated, our doctrine is based upon Scriptural teaching and the Natural Law (since God is the Author of nature). God designed human beings with the ability to reproduce only after physical maturity. Since sex is designed primarily for procreation (see Genesis 1 & 2), you cannot procreate with children. The Natural Law forbids sexual relations with children and God's word ONLY countenances heterosexual marriage between one man and one woman.

    Gen. 2:24. Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

    Mt.19:4-5...4. And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,

    5. And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?

    Notice, marriage is between one man and one woman. The only sexual relationship countenanced in the Bible is the marital one:

    Heb. 13:4. Marriage is honourable in all, and the bed undefiled: but whoremongers and adulterers God will judge.

    You are incorrect to say God allows pedophilia. I've offered you a rational argument. If you disagree, please give me a rational reason why.

    With respect to a *specific* Scriptural reference against pedophilia, none is needed. The Bible clearly teaches what marriage is and that any sexual relationship outside of marriage is sin. No specific verse is needed in this case.

    There are many things the Bible teaches against without specifically naming the practice. For example, Christ taught that any man looking upon a woman with lust has committed adultery in his heart. This is sufficient to teach against pornography and similar forms of "entertainment." There were many forms of sexual entertainment in the Roman Empire, but very few of them, if any, are mentioned in the Bible. This verse, along with similar ones, is more than sufficient to proscribe that behavior.

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