Anonymous asked in Society & CultureReligion & Spirituality · 1 decade ago


Why, for thousands of years, did none of God's prophets teach his people about the Trinity? At the least, would Jesus not use his ability as the Great Teacher to make the Trinity clear to his followers? Would God inspire hundreds of pages of Scripture and yet not use any of this instruction to teach the Trinity if it were the "central doctrine" of faith?


Where is your source jworks? How about showing us with the Bible?

Update 2:

Again, thank you for your baseless answer seeker.

9 Answers

  • Micah
    Lv 6
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    The one true God wants us to worship him and would never make himself to be a "mystery " to his creation. How can people pray to a God they do not know? They give worship to the Son instead of the Father. Jesus, as God's only begotten Son always acknowledged his Father in heaven as the only God to be worshipped. When Jesus drove the greedy merchants out of the temple, he did not say "my house" did he? No, he said this at John 2:16--“Take these things away! Do not make My Father’s house a house of merchandise!”

    Jesus clearly acknowledged that the temple was not his, but was God's. He also acknowledged that his Father was greater than he was. He said also that he could do nothing on his own, but could only do what his Father wanted him to do. God is not limited in anything---Jesus was and was not ashamed to admit it.

    John 14:28 John 5:19 John 8:28

  • 1 decade ago

    You are extremely misinformed. Why don't you look at the first statements in the Bible. Genesis 1:1 "In the beginning God created the heavens and the earth. 2 The earth was formless and void, and darkness was over the surface of the deep, and the Spirit of God was moving over the surface of the waters." First of all the word for God is in the plural, it really says "Gods". Second the Spirit of God was moving on the surface of the deep, independently of God. Right in the first statements the trinity is beginning to be taught, and there are thousands of references to it throughout the Bible. How can you be so ignorant as to make the statement "none of God's prophets teach about the trinity."

    The fact that those who criticize the Bible have to resort to such ridiculous arguments to prove their point is tremendous evidence that there is not much in the Bible you can really tear apart. That is why it has stood the test of time and lasted for thousands of years.

  • 1 decade ago

    why, for thousands of years did people not own their own bible or read it for themselves - maybe because you can't compare yesterday to today as apples to apples....

    Jesus didn't have to use His powers to teach of the Trininty - the apostles understood and didn't need reality crammed downtheir throats. check out Mt 28:19 where Christ tells to go forth to all nations baptizing in the name of the Father, the Son and the Holy Spirit.
another favorite is when a priest ends mass and quotes 2 Cor 13:14 The Grace of the Lord Jesus Christ, and the Love of God and the communion/fellowship of the Holy Ghost be with you all. 1 John 5:7, "For there are three that bear record in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one."

    There is a lot more Scripture explaining the concept of the Trinity. if you would like more references, please do not hesitate to ask!

    God Bless

  • daisyk
    Lv 6
    1 decade ago

    A simple study of early Christian history shows that the concept of the trinity is the result of vote led by a recent convert emperor (Constantine) at the council of Nicea.

    Needless to say those who voted otherwise were exiled and otherwise severely punished, thus entirely whipping the idea that they might actually be separate off the face of the earth.

    Personally, I am skeptical with any doctrine that comes by the votes of man, and not the direct revelations of God.

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  • 1 decade ago

    It is clearly taught in the Bible. However, many don't listen or understand. I know you disagree, but please read what I've written.

    1) The word translated as "God" in our Bibles is the Hebrew word "Elohim," which is a pleural word meaning "Gods."

    2) God refers to Himself in the pleural; see Genesis 1:26a. There is no evidence this is the "royal we," as some try to argue.

    3) There are instances in the Bible where God the Father speaks to God the Son (Jesus Christ, a.k.a. The Word). In Psalm 45:6-7, the writer states: "Your throne, O God, is for ever and ever: A scepter of equity is the scepter of your kingdom. You have loved righteousness, and hated wickedness: Therefore God, your God, has anointed you with the oil of gladness above your fellows." Notice that the word God is actually applied to two different Persons within these two verses. He is addressing God, and after addressing God, he says that another God had anointed the first God with the oil of gladness above "your" fellows. It should be noted that in this verse the first Elohim is being addressed. The second Elohim is the God of the first Elohim. Therefore, it is God’s God who has anointed Him with the oil of gladness. Another example may be found at Hosea 1:7.

    4) Then there are Scriptural sources that reference ALL THREE Persons of the Trinity: Father, Son and Spirit:

    Isaiah 42:1 "Behold, my [Father] servant [Son], whom I uphold; my chosen, in whom my soul delights: I have put my Spirit [Holy Spirit] upon him; he will bring forth justice to the Gentiles."

    The first Person is the speaker, who is seen by the pronouns "my" and "I." The second Person is the speaker's "servant," the servant of Jehovah. And the third Person is the "Spirit" of God. Scripture repeatedly identifies Jesus Christ as God the Father's "Servant."

    Isaiah 61:1 is a second example:

    "The Spirit [person #1] of the Lord Jehovah [person # 2] is upon me [person # 3]; because Jehovah has anointed me to preach good tidings unto the meek; he has sent me to bind up the broken-hearted, to proclaim liberty to the captives, and the opening of the prison to them that are bound;…" Again, there are three individuals: the Lord Jehovah; the Spirit of Jehovah; and the speaker ("me"). We know from Luke 4:18 that the person referring to Himself as "Me" is Jesus Christ.

    5) Many folks, when disputing the Triune nature of God, use Deut. 6:4 as proof that "God is One," not "three Gods in One." However, they misunderstand the Hebrew word used there and its context. The Hebrew word translated as "one" is "echad." This word DOES NOT state an "absolute one," it states a "compound One" that fully supports the Trinity. Look at these Biblical verses that ALL use "echad": Gen. 1:5 & 2:24; Ezra 2:64; Ezekiel 37:17. Here, we see a PLEURALITY that is joined into a singular, yet the pleurality of this One is still recognized. Conversely, the Hebrew word "yachid" means an "ABSOLUTE ONE," and can be seen at places such as Gen. 22:2, where it's translated as "only." NEVER is God refered to as "yachid," which would be necessary in order for anti-Trinitarians to be correct.

    There is MUCH more proof of the Trinity in the Bible. However, this is not the forum for such an extensive discussion. If you want more information, send me a message through YA and I'd be happy to send it to you.


  • 1 decade ago


    It may first be noted that the words “in heaven, the Father, the Word, and the Holy Ghost: and these three are one” (KJ) found in older translations at 1 John 5:7 are actually spurious additions to the original text. A footnote in The Jerusalem Bible, a Catholic translation, says that these words are “not in any of the early Greek MSS [manuscripts], or any of the early translations, or in the best MSS of the Vulg[ate] itself.” A Textual Commentary on the Greek New Testament, by Bruce Metzger (1975, pp. 716-718), traces in detail the history of the spurious passage. It states that the passage is first found in a treatise entitled Liber Apologeticus, of the fourth century, and that it appears in Old Latin and Vulgate manuscripts of the Scriptures, beginning in the sixth century. Modern translations as a whole, both Catholic and Protestant, do not include them in the main body of the text, because of recognizing their spurious nature.—RS, NE, NAB.

    Other evidence of its impersonal nature. Further evidence against the idea of personality as regards the holy spirit is the way it is used in association with other impersonal things, such as water and fire (Mt 3:11; Mr 1:8); and Christians are spoken of as being baptized “in holy spirit.” (Ac 1:5; 11:16) Persons are urged to become “filled with spirit” instead of with wine. (Eph 5:18) So, too, persons are spoken of as being ‘filled’ with it along with such qualities as wisdom and faith (Ac 6:3, 5; 11:24) or joy (Ac 13:52); and holy spirit is inserted, or sandwiched in, with a number of such qualities at 2 Corinthians 6:6. It is most unlikely that such expressions would be made if the holy spirit were a divine person. As to the spirit’s ‘bearing witness’ (Ac 5:32; 20:23), it may be noted that the same thing is said of the water and the blood at 1 John 5:6-8. While some texts refer to the spirit as ‘witnessing,’ ‘speaking,’ or ‘saying’ things, other texts make clear that it spoke through persons, having no personal voice of its own. (Compare Heb 3:7; 10:15-17; Ps 95:7; Jer 31:33, 34; Ac 19:2-6; 21:4; 28:25.)

  • 1 decade ago

    God does what He knows is best and usually in His own time,it took thousands of years for God to reveal Himself to Abraham and then thousands more to reveal His Christ to the world, we can question all we like but God does not operate by our rules.

  • 1 decade ago

    It was taught. Elohim (I think that is the right spelling) means God in three Persons - Father God, Jesus, Holy Spirit. All Spirit of God - but different entities also. This was not kept a secret - this was and is Truth. It is very clear to me.

  • 1 decade ago

    The trinity of God did not exist until the Catholic church made it up.

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