Anonymous
Anonymous asked in Politics & GovernmentImmigration · 1 decade ago

Was the Spanish language here first in the U.S. than the English Language?

Is it true also that santana was force to sell off the land? Against his will? Why is it that when the UNITED STATES SEIZED CALIFORNIA AND ALL THE OTHER MEXICAN LANDS , THE CALIFORNIAN GOLD RUSH WAS DISCOVERED THOSE TEARS? HMMM A BIT UNDERHANDED I THINK?

Update:

I MEANT THOSE YEARS

Update 2:

THERE GOES MANIFEST DESTINY DOWN THE TUBE!!!

Update 4:

KNOE IMAGINE IF THE MEXICANS WERE HAD TO KEPT CALIFORNIA , WE WOULD HAVE GRIGOS TRYING TO SNEAK INTO CALIFAS!

22 Answers

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago
    Favorite Answer

    Antonio Lopez de Santa Anna, the leading villain of Texas history, was born in Mexico on 21 February 1794. As a young military officer, he supported Emperor Agustin de Iturbide, and at one time courted the emperor's sister.

    He later rebelled against the government, gained considerable backing. By 1833, he was elevated to president of Mexico in a democratic election. He soon determined, however, that Mexico was not ready for democracy and pronounced himself dictator.

    Santa Anna was remembered as a particularly ruthless opponent by the Texans. Despite this, he was allowed to return to Mexico after his capture at the Battle of San Jacinto.

    After his return to Mexico, Santa Anna participated in the Mexican War and in 1853 sold territory to the United States including that area known as the Gadsden Purchase. He was later exiled from Mexico, but allowed to return a few years before his death in 1876.

    Santana rules but Santa Anna drools

  • 1 decade ago

    *sigh* I get your point, but I don't see how any of it can be verified without historical documentation, which you have not provided. I think if you want to make a point about the seizure of California lands coinciding with the Gold Rush, you should at least provide some dates. I think Santa Ana was DEFEATED by the Texas army, in part because he couldn't keep his taquito in his pants and spent the night before the Battle of San Jacinto with a prostitute, but for this I can't provide any documentation, just the word of my history teacher, who visited Mexico frequently.

    What I can say is that it doesn't really matter which language "got here" first. What matters is what we do with our words now. And since you seem to be unable to properly use either English OR Spanish (seriously, you can't even spell "gringo"), I suggest you go back to school and get a little more education before you attempt to start a political debate by opening with an irrelevant historical question.

  • 1 decade ago

    What a ridiculous question. The first languages in this land known as the US now was several different native Indian languages.

    Some tribes had their own alphabet , towns, newspapers, and also owned slaves.

    There was no such nationality as a Mexican till the Spanish Conquistador's raped and pillaged the native Indians living in what is now called Mexico.

    As for the spouted poo about Santa Anna being forced to sell land..... that is bunk the government that he represented was well payed for the lands even though he was conquered.

    As usual another so called know it all from propaganda that is made up to sooth the many that are not serviced by the socialist government known as Mexico that they still pledge allegiance to but still expect the US Citizen to bend over and take it like a mule.

  • 1 decade ago

    you know bandit. i like how people keep bringing up what are ancestors did. i was not there.if you asked me Spain stole the land from the native Americans. when France came over they taught the native how to scalp. maybe they should of done that to the Spaniard. by the way Christopher Columbus discovered America. soooooo, wouldn't you say the native Americans and the Italians have more rights here. it's all in the history books. America teaches history from all over the world. we didn't take nothing, it was there for the taking. the sorry Mexican govt saw a thieving way to make are ancestor pay for something they tried taking from the American Indians. Mexico is as old as America. if it wasn't for the Spaniards breeding with the Mexican Indians, Mexicans wouldn't be here. ask the crocked Mexican govt to tell the Mexican people the truth for once. America payed for the land we have after we kicked their a sses to get it.

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  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    After the language of the Native Americans, the amerindians ,Spanish was next as it was Spain with compass and lots of faith and a adventurer by the name of Colom that set foot in the new world after the Natives, then it was a hell go for Britain ,France, Porugal and other European nations in a fight for paradise! And look at the mess! When I was a little girl in Puertorico ,we could still drink the rivers water, and use it for bathing, cooking, there were frogs, manatees, all kinds of birds , no more! Go see the waste contaminated island of Puertorico! The Earth is actually standing on one foot, think about it!

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Neither were the first language. Whatever language the American Indians spoke was the first. English came before Spanish in most of America. Then we bought land from the Mexicans and it became English. We bought the land legally, nothing was taken from Mexicans. When you buy something, it's yours. Get over it.

  • 1 decade ago

    First language in North America was Native American. The Spanish and English speaking people came over and took over.

  • 1 decade ago

    Actually, Scandinavian of one kind or another. Little is known but that there actually was a short lived settlement on the western hemisphere. The Spanish presence, is relatively new, just ahead of the Pilgrims around the time of the Inquisition, I believe. The Conquistador on one hand, the Catholic priest on the other. Like the Crusades. I think the running joke was:

    " I keel ju een dee naym off God! "

    And so they did!

  • Anonymous
    1 decade ago

    Carlos Santana is a rock player. He is in this time period not the Mexican-America War. Please get your facts straighten out before you make such idiotic question. People insists that the American Southwest belongs to Mexico. That was way back before ca.1836. And this is the 21st Century.

    Source(s): before you decide to call me racist, I firmly believe that the immigration laws needs to be enforced.
  • 1 decade ago

    I am half spanish, and on my spanish side, my ancestors left spain, for what was then called "new spain", this was in the 1500's by the 1600's my family was in what is now "new mexico" and part of the USA. My family still owns the land they bought when they came. They didnt lose anything, and guess what THEY ARE AMERICANS!! They speak english, and they are good people. Nothing was taken from them.

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