Did Muhammad follow the word of God before receiving revelation from a spirit?
If Muhamamd did not follow God could he have been a prophet of God?
If Muhamamd was following the word of God then he must have tested the spirit he spoke with according to the word of God.
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Amhad according to the Qu'ran the message was through a spirit who claimed to be Gabriel. Moses spoke directly to God.
2 years ago
Duran, Muhammad according to the Qu'ran speaks first with a spirit that he did not know...If Muhamamad was a prophet prepared by God he would have been required to test this spirit to know it was from God...10:94 says Allah directs Muhamamad to speak with those who have read previous scriptures if he has doubt...God directs us all in the Bible to test a spirit to know it is from God. Had Muhamamd compared this revelation wiht the word of God he would have found it disagreed with the word of God..would he not?
2 years ago
Missy according to the Qu'ran Muhamamd did not speak to God.
How did he follow everything God told him when it was a spirit that he spoke with? Wouldn't Muhammad have to test the spirit to be sure it was from God before he followed everything it said?
2 years ago
Mohmmad R
If Muhamad had not spoke with God could not read the word of God how was Muhamamd to identify a God he did not know?
could we reasonably assume Muhamamd could not have identified a spirit from God from a demon in disguise?
Moses warned us through God to test a prophet and throughout the Bible we are warned to test a spirit or a prophet to know...All prophets are required to be ina greement and any spirit that disagreed with the word of God could not be considered from God.
How could a man who did not know God be a prophet of God?
2 years ago
Thanks Nina Actually it is Muslims that call the word of God corrupt the Qu'ran speaks as if it is in agreement with the word of God.
2 years ago
Though it is obvious that it is not.
2 years ago
rubiez clearly the messege that Paul brought is from God as it is in agreement with the word of God and is the word of God. pauls revelation is in agreement with the word of God and the prophets of God.
Muhamamd agreed with a spirit that disagreed with God..Does the Qu'ran agree with the Bible? No it is the reson you call the Bible corrupt.
If the Qu'ran is not in agreement wiht the word of God according to the true God of Abraham that Allah cliams to be...then Muhamamd can not be a prophet of God nor the Qu'ran the word of God.
2 years ago
Do you think the previous prophets were in agreement with the Qu'ran?
because the prophets were monthiest.'
The propblem wiht this assertion is you nor Muhamamd understood that the trinity is ONE God and this is in the first book God spoke to Moses read Genesis where God said Let US created man in OUR image..does this make Moses a polytheist? or is your idea of trinity based on Muhamamad's misinterpretation of the trinity?
2 years ago
rubiezz, If the books written by Paul were in disagreement with Christ you would be absolutely correct.
I agree Paul taught the atonement of Jesus Christ...Now When Jesus said you must be born again what do you supose he was refering to?
When Jesus said I am the way and the truth and the life and no one comes to the Father but through the Son what do you suppose he was refering to?
You seriously need to read the teachings of Jesus Christ if you think he taught different than the atonement it is the reason he came to the world even according to the prophet Isaiah...as I said all prophets of God agree...Your problem nis Muhammad did not agree and as I said is not a prophet of God.
Read the true word of God and the words of the prophets and tell me Muhammad is in agreement with them.
Simply saying God is one is not agreement with God. of course God is one but he taught more than simply this.
Now as far as your majestic we theory it doesnt hold water...cont.
2 years ago
The first book of Moses is writeen in 1500 BC these people never heard of your "Royal We" Now look up the definition of the royal we and see that a king refers to his kingdom which is plural. God is not refering to his kingdom in Genesis 1 as man had not yet been created and man did not help God create man.
Genesis 1: 26 And God said, Let us make man in our dimage, after our likeness: and let them have dominion over the fish of the sea, and over the fowl of the air, and over the cattle, and over all the earth, and over every creeping thing that creepeth upon the earth.
27 So God created man in his own image, in the image of God created he him; male and female created he them. Was God refering to Himself? Obviously
Man? Man was not yet created.
Angels? Did angels help god create man? obviously not 27 says God created man.
God refers to himeslf as US ..which by teh way does not fit the definition of the roayal we..as he was not refering to his kingdom and man was not created
2 years ago
by a kingdom.
2 years ago
Moses in 1500 BC had no knowledge of the "Royal We" please refer me to it''s use during or before this time period.
2 years ago
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