In mathematics, when you multiply two negative numbers, you will always get a positive number. Also, when you divide a negative number by a negative number, you will always get a positive number. There are ways to prove this "formally," using axioms and rules of inference, but I'll give you an intuitive explanation, which is in some ways better (it is what a mathematician would usually start with, before "formalizing" his proof).
Consider x and y, two positive real numbers. We want to show that (-x) times (-y) is equal to xy:
[xy + x(-y)] + (-x)(-y) = xy + [x(-y) + (-x)(-y)] (this is just the distributive law)
Consider the first half of the equation:
[xy + x(-y)] + (-x)(-y) = x(y - y) + (-x)(-y)
= 0 + (-x)(-y)
= (-x)(-y)
Now consider the second half of the equation:
xy + [x(-y) + (-x)(-y)] = xy + [(x - x)(-y)]
= xy + [0(-y)]
= xy
But the two sides of the equation are the equal. So, if x and y are any two positive numbers, (-x)(-y) = xy.
As for division, consider x and y, two positive numbers. We know that for any positive number x, x/x = 1. It follows that (-x)/(-x) =1 as well. We already have the special case of a negative number divided by itself being equal to the positive number 1. Would this also be the case for (-x)/(-y), where x and y are two different positive numbers? Suppose not. Suppose that (-x)/(-y) = (-z), where z is some positive real number. Then:
{(-y) times [(-x)/(-y)]} = [(-y) times (-z)]
But [(-y) times (-x)/(-y)] is simply equal to (-x). So (-x) = (-y)(-z).
But (-y)(-z) = yz, which we know is positive. (-x) is negative, a contradition.
So (-x)/(-y) has to be a positive number. There is no way for it to be negative.


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